I'm confused about something nadin's said here.
Perhaps a member from California can illuminate us?
Is it true that it's being considered in California to have only the two top primary vote-getters on the November ballot, even if they're from the same party?
If so, hmmmmm.
It looks like the Democrats, liberals, and primitives of California are moving back to the bad old days of the corrupt Democrat South, when the Democrat primary was the same thing as the general election.