Probably because he isn't in violation of it.
I haven't read it, admittedly... but doesn't it only cover the executive branch anyway?
Just as an example, it would have to be someone in the executive branch that TOLD Comey to do something that violated the rules and do it for the sole purpose of interfering with the election?
And (and this is probably my misguided understanding), wouldn't Lynch actually be in violation of said act for coercing Comey to suppress information and for trying to kill off the investigation?
I guess I should take the time to read it now that it's becoming a dirtbag Reid talking point... and the DUmmies are all over it like stink on $%#