Yes, because despite all their pretensions of sexual equality and liberated thinking, Democrats and many other related house-apes incapable of critical thinking regard the mere accusation as proof, relying on the impossibility of proving a negative and the very unliberated view of all women as victims instead of voluntary actors.
And of course sometimes there was some sort of entirely-consensual relationship, but they can turn on a dime to suddenly re-characterize what actually did occur in the distant past as an instance of harassment or assault, because circumstances have made an altered and rewritten past valuable to them as a tool to silence or 'de-legitimize' a critic.
