When did the slaves in the Northern slave-holding states see their freedom?
With the enactment of the 13th Amendment; which was the proper legislative remedy to the debate as enshrined by the constitution. If one faction of a debate wants a policy they are obligated to politically seek legislative remedy (read: peaceably).
If someone has contraband on their premises the police can ask permission to inspect. If that person declines the police are obligated to seek a warrant after establishing probable cause because these are the rights afforded even to lawbreakers. However, if the suspect starts blasting guns out the window the suspect waives those rights. Once the shooting starts the original offense is no longer the issue; the breach of the peace is the only point that matters until the violence is suppressed.
For many parts of it, yes....
Except for the parts that explicitly said no law could be passed forbidding the ownership of slaves, i.e. Art. 1, Sec. 9 (4) of the CotCSA.
"There are few, I believe, in this enlightened age, who will not acknowledge that slavery as an institution is a moral and political evil." Robert E. Lee
Did you know Lee freed his slaves in 1862, prior to the Emancipation Proclamation?
OK, so R E Lee freed his slaves.
And the abolitionists that
Texas found so intolerable have--well--every one of themselves.
I know that we all grew up hearing the Union fought for the noble cause of ending slavery. That is not the truth and I have stated as much several times in this thread alone. I get it; the old propaganda is a selective portrayal of history designed to make one side look more noble than it really was when the reality is they were fighting over politics and law, not morality. I don't endorse the old propaganda and I do not peddle it. There is no need try to counter the old propaganda by offering nouveau propaganda in its place.