The Conservative Cave
Interests => Religious Discussions => Topic started by: cclanofirish on April 07, 2008, 01:39:06 PM
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Just a quick question...If a priest commits a moral wrong against members of his congregation, and then refuses to seek forgiveness and go through the full sacraments, particularly Reconciliation, are they improperly and immorally dispensing the Holy Eucharist? Are they in essence acting out as illegitimate priests?
Please provide canon law, and other evidence for either side.I would like to be well informed on the issue. Thanks everybody
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Sorry cc, I don't know anything about the Catholic church, just didn't want you to think no one read your post! :beer:
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I can't quote canonical law, cclan, but from what I learned as a little lad, a priest who has committed a mortal sin is not in the eyes of God a priest, although it takes the fallible human eye a lot longer to catch on.
However, the Sacraments that the fallen priest gives are considered valid, because they're accepted in good faith and ignorance on the part of the recipients.
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Just a quick question...If a priest commits a moral wrong against members of his congregation, and then refuses to seek forgiveness and go through the full sacraments, particularly Reconciliation, are they improperly and immorally dispensing the Holy Eucharist? Are they in essence acting out as illegitimate priests?
Please provide canon law, and other evidence for either side.I would like to be well informed on the issue. Thanks everybody
I had this discussion with my sister who is a Franciscan awhile ago. The priest's state of grave sin prohibits him from celebrating the Eucharist and committing sacrilege, but the Eucharist itself is still holy. The reason given is that Christ can still act through a priest who is spiritually dead.
I did find an article about this topic from EWTN.
http://www.ewtn.com/library/Liturgy/zlitur68.htm
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Just a quick question...If a priest commits a moral wrong against members of his congregation, and then refuses to seek forgiveness and go through the full sacraments, particularly Reconciliation, are they improperly and immorally dispensing the Holy Eucharist? Are they in essence acting out as illegitimate priests?
Please provide canon law, and other evidence for either side.I would like to be well informed on the issue. Thanks everybody
I had this discussion with my sister who is a Franciscan awhile ago. The priest's state of grave sin prohibits him from celebrating the Eucharist and committing sacrilege, but the Eucharist itself is still holy. The reason given is that Christ can still act through a priest who is spiritually dead.
I did find an article about this topic from EWTN.
http://www.ewtn.com/library/Liturgy/zlitur68.htm
Thanks Schadenfreude, and franksolich....This issue has really been bugging me for the last few months. EWTN looks very promising.