Author Topic: Translation Errors in Scripture  (Read 20823 times)

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Offline Doc

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Translation Errors in Scripture
« on: March 23, 2010, 03:41:49 PM »
Have you ever studied a portion of Scripture and come away completely confounded as to what the meaning of the passage was, or its intended lesson?  I know that I have, and on more than one occasion, resorted to some Biblical research, as well as historical inquiry, and also on more than one occasion, have discovered that the best explanation for my confusion was that those that transcribed the text......simply got it wrong.......

I submit to you....Matthew 19:24 (KJV)

Quote
And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.

Now, at first glance this passage appears to advise us that the accumulation of wealth would make it difficult for us to find ourselves redeemed........however.......if we study Christian history, we will find that a number of Saints (for Catholics), as well as several of early Christian martyrs were "wealthy" in the earthly sense, so questions arise.....Lets look even deeper......

Let's parse this passage a bit and look at "It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle.....". This passage has been shouted from pulpits in Christian Churches for centuries, and on its face simply makes no sense whatsoever from a variety of perspectives.........

First historical perspective: In the first century AD, "needles", as common sewing implements were considerably different from those we use today.  Archaeologists have found samples of them in many locations in excavations in the Holy Land, and they are made from a variety of materials such as wood, bone, or for wealthier people, copper and even silver.......however they have one common characteristic.......they do not have "eyes".......needles of that era were fashioned in a manner that the thread, sinew, or yarn wrapped around a groove in the "needle" as it was passed through the fabric in order to sew.  Needles with "eyes", as defined as a hole in the device through which thread is passed were not invented until the eleventh century.

Now let's deal with the Camel.......

Most of the Old Testament was written in (ancient) Hebrew, with the exception of a few chapters in Ezra, and Daniel, which were written in Aramaic.  The New Testament was written (initially) in Aramaic, with the exception of a portion of Hebrews, which was expressed in Coptic.  Between the second and third centuries AD, the New Testament was translated into Koine Greek, by persons unknown, and the Aramaic Scriptures were forever lost, therefore, we must deal with the Greek texts.

The first (modern) translation was started by a man named John Wycliffe, and later finished by John Purvey, in 1388, under commission by King James, thus we have the KJV.  For the King James Bible, a group of over fifty scholars worked not only on the original Hebrew and Greek version of these books, but also utilized all of the then extant translations that had been made.  It was, in essence, translation "by committee", and therefore inevitable that mistakes would be made.

There are two very similar words in Koine Greek, camilos, meaning "rope", and camelos, meaning "Camel"........therefore, whoever was doing this portion of the translation misread the "i" in Greek for an "e"......and Churches have been stuck with this translation ever since.......

Now what is learned from this experience?  By substituting "rope" for "Camel" in the quoted verse, it certainly makes more sense generically, but we are still stuck with the anomalies of the "needle", and the meaning of the rest of the passage........considering the fact that some very devout, albeit wealthy, early Christians are known to exist.

We are left with another interpretive mystery that Biblical scholars will likely puzzle over for the rest of our days, but the moral of the story (if there is one) is for we Christians to be ever cautious of verbatim expressions of God's word, and seek the overall context from whence they came.

doc
« Last Edit: March 23, 2010, 03:45:52 PM by TVDOC »

Offline MrsSmith

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #1 on: March 23, 2010, 07:46:08 PM »
Of course, everyone has heard that the "needle" was the name of a gate which was nearly too small for a camel...though some evidently now doubt that.  However:
Quote
Makes sense in Aramaic
An alternative linguistic explanation is taken from George M Lamsa's Syriac-Aramaic Peshitta translation2 which has the word 'rope' in the main text but a footnote on Matthew 19:24 which states that the Aramaic word gamla means rope and camel, possibly because the ropes were made from camel hair. Evidence for this also comes from the 10th century Aramaic lexicographer Mar Bahlul who gives the meaning as a "a large rope used to bind ships". (cf. http://www.aramaicnt.org/HTML/LUKE/evidences/Camel.html)

Some have even suggested a pun in Aramaic between camel and gnat or louse from the Aramaic kalma 'vermin, louse'.

Just as the apocryphal Acts of Peter and Andrew3 refers the saying to a literal camel and needle, so we are not meant to reason away the apparent difficulty of getting a camel through a needle's eye. For the difficulty is not apparent it is real, and not be solved by textual trickery but by taking the ludicrous language at face value.

What we have instead then, I believe, is a beautiful Hebrew hyperbole, as in the tree sticking out of one's eye whilst one is removing a speck in another's eye! Indeed, Jewish Talmudic literature uses a similar aphorism about an elephant passing through the eye of a needle as a figure of speech implying the unlikely or impossible:

    "They do not show a man a palm tree of gold, nor an elephant going through the eye of a needle."4
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Offline USA4ME

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #2 on: March 23, 2010, 08:13:14 PM »
I'm not seeing the difficulty.  It says "It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God."  It doesn't say it's impossible for it to take place.

This is simple an illustration by Jesus to make a point.  Rich people, in general, tend to put their trust in riches rather than God.  But that isn't always the case.  Two excellent examples of men who were wealthy in the Bible yet were obedient to God were Abraham and Job.

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Online Carl

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #3 on: March 23, 2010, 08:16:17 PM »
I have a copy of Bible Questions Answered by William Pettingill and he asserts that Jesus was saying that a mans riches can not buy his way into heaven but that still it must come from acceptance if Christ as his Saviour and admitting his sinful and depraved state before God.

"Jesus meant to teach that it is impossible for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.But,thank God what is impossible for man is possible with God;and the way He saves a rich man is to make the rich man see that his riches are not his at all but Gods.
The rich man,like any other man,must come as a helpless,hopeless,naked and undone sinner and receive the unspeakable gift of God,which is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord."


Was how he answered the question.

Offline Chris_

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #4 on: March 23, 2010, 08:50:22 PM »
I have a copy of Bible Questions Answered by William Pettingill and he asserts that Jesus was saying that a mans riches can not buy his way into heaven but that still it must come from acceptance if Christ as his Saviour and admitting his sinful and depraved state before God.

"Jesus meant to teach that it is impossible for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.But,thank God what is impossible for man is possible with God;and the way He saves a rich man is to make the rich man see that his riches are not his at all but Gods.
The rich man,like any other man,must come as a helpless,hopeless,naked and undone sinner and receive the unspeakable gift of God,which is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord."


Was how he answered the question.

Interesting answer......however, Christ's message was mostly direct and left little to interpretation.....why resort to hyperbole with this particular message? Particularly when most of his followers were (at that time) largely poor and uneducated. seems odd to me......

doc
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Offline Chris_

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #5 on: March 23, 2010, 08:53:16 PM »
I'm not seeing the difficulty.  It says "It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God."  It doesn't say it's impossible for it to take place.

This is simple an illustration by Jesus to make a point.  Rich people, in general, tend to put their trust in riches rather than God.  But that isn't always the case.  Two excellent examples of men who were wealthy in the Bible yet were obedient to God were Abraham and Job.

Perhaps to you, but it still doesn't explain the eye of a "needle" that did not exist in those times......

doc
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Offline Doc

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #6 on: March 23, 2010, 09:07:06 PM »
Of course, everyone has heard that the "needle" was the name of a gate which was nearly too small for a camel...though some evidently now doubt that.  However:

I have never heard this explanation.....where was this alledged gate?  This sounds like a pastor attempting to  explain that for which he had no explanation......and I've heard a number of those, referring to this passage, and questioned them about it, to wit, they acknoledged that the true meaning is open to interpretation.....

Needless to say, a goodly number of pastors have found me a troubling influence on their Bible study class......not because I'm a non-believer,, I'm certainly not.....it appears that some succomb to the sin  of vanity regarding their knowledge of Scripture.......but I digress.....

Quote
An alternative linguistic explanation is taken from George M Lamsa's Syriac-Aramaic Peshitta translation2 which has the word 'rope' in the main text but a footnote on Matthew 19:24 which states that the Aramaic word gamla means rope and camel, possibly because the ropes were made from camel hair. Evidence for this also comes from the 10th century Aramaic lexicographer Mar Bahlul who gives the meaning as a "a large rope used to bind ships". (cf. http://www.aramaicnt.org/...LUKE/evidences/Camel.html)

The problem with this is that in my OP.....and you are free to verify......the KJV texts were translated from Greek, not Aramaic.......so a translation error exists, as I stated.....and was verified by translation back into Aramaic, and then to English.....this quotation essentially verifies my initial argument....and even this scholar admits, tacitly, that his opinion is speculation....

doc
« Last Edit: March 23, 2010, 09:16:46 PM by TVDOC »

Online Carl

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #7 on: March 23, 2010, 09:17:06 PM »
Perhaps to you, but it still doesn't explain the eye of a "needle" that did not exist in those times......

doc

I am not sure that is correct.

http://www.edburrell.com/eye_of_the_needle33.html

Offline MrsSmith

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #8 on: March 23, 2010, 09:33:53 PM »
I have never heard this explanation.....where was this alledged gate?  This sounds like a pastor attempting to  explain that for which he had no explanation......and I've heard a number of those, referring to this passage, and questioned them about it, to wit, they acknoledged that the true meaning is open to interpretation.....

Needless to say, a goodly number of pastors have found me a troubling influence on their Bible study class......not because I'm a non-believer,, I'm certainly not.....it appears that some succomb to the sin  of vanity regarding their knowledge of Scripture.......but I digress.....

The problem with this is that in my OP.....and you are free to verify......the KJV texts were translated from Greek, not Aramaic.......so a translation error exists, as I stated.....and was verified by translation back into Aramaic, and then to English.....this quotation essentially verifies my initial argument....and even this scholar admits, tacitly, that his opinion is speculation....

doc
Did Jesus speak Greek?  Or Aramaic? 
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Offline Chris_

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #9 on: March 23, 2010, 09:42:26 PM »
Two excellent examples of men who were wealthy in the Bible yet were obedient to God were Abraham and Job.


True, but I'm gonna pick nits here......Job and Abraham were Jews......not Christians......the New Testament is where this is happening....

doc
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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #10 on: March 23, 2010, 09:46:05 PM »
Did Jesus speak Greek?  Or Aramaic?  

He (supposedly) spoke Ancient Hebrew, from which Aramaic is derived......Aramaic was the only written language of the time, (and place), other than the Latin spoken by their Roman masters, and there is no direct evidence that Christ was able to write......hence it is doubtful that he was aware of the distinction

Aramaic, and the ability of the Jews to communicate in writing, evolved from the first diaspora, and the abiility was learned by the Jews in captivity.......the written form of the language (Aramaic) is actually a mixture of written expressions borrowed from earlier cultures, and transposed upon the language of Ancient Hebrew.....

doc
« Last Edit: March 28, 2010, 04:56:19 PM by TVDOC »

Offline ChuckJ

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #11 on: March 24, 2010, 03:52:06 AM »
Quote
First historical perspective: In the first century AD, "needles", as common sewing implements were considerably different from those we use today.  Archaeologists have found samples of them in many locations in excavations in the Holy Land, and they are made from a variety of materials such as wood, bone, or for wealthier people, copper and even silver.......however they have one common characteristic.......they do not have "eyes".......needles of that era were fashioned in a manner that the thread, sinew, or yarn wrapped around a groove in the "needle" as it was passed through the fabric in order to sew.  Needles with "eyes", as defined as a hole in the device through which thread is passed were not invented until the eleventh century.

I'm interested where you found the info about the ancient needles and the needle eye. All I've been able to find is as follows:

Needles from later than 17,500 BC already had the two features characteristic of the hand sewing needle today . . . the eye at one end and the tapering point at the other end. They were made from the materials available to human society at the time, for example, bones and antlers.

As people acquired skills in working metal materials, needles were also made from metal (Bronze Age approximately 7000 BC), first from copper, later from iron or bronze. Although there is no positive evidence as to the precise design of these needles, excellent pieces of embroidery from the pre-Christian era suggest that they were probably fashioned almost to perfection. Unfortunately, the articles made with these needles were only partially preserved and there are barely any traces of the needles themselves. This is largely explained by the effect of oxidation, which destroys metallic needles after a short time. Even needles made during the 19th century are now rarely found intact.
Needles

Of course the above is from a needle seller's website and NOT from a historical website so I don't know how accurate it is.
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Offline JohnnyReb

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #12 on: March 24, 2010, 05:43:35 AM »
I have always had my own inturpretation of that verse.

I've always thought of it as meaning that if a man dealt fairly, honestly and truthfully with those that he aquired wealth from he had no problem entering heaven. But if he had aquired his wealth by dishonest means, he had a problem.

....and I'm no bible scholar so my thoughts lend little to this discussion.
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Offline MrsSmith

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #13 on: March 24, 2010, 06:06:49 AM »
He (supposedly) spoke Ancient Hebrew, from which Aramaic is derived......Aramaic was the only written language of the time, (and place), other than the Latin spoken by their Roman masters, and there is no direct evidence that Christ was able to write......hence it is doubtful that he was aware of the distinction

Aramaic, and the ability of the Jews to communicate in writing, evolved from the first diaspora, and the abiility was learned by the Jews in captivity.......the written form of the language (Aramaic) is actually a mixture of written expressions borrowed from earlier cultures, and transposed upon the language of Ancient Hegrew.....

doc
He could read, so there is no reason to think He couldn't write.  And, in point of fact, being God, it's quite likely He knew ALL languages...and was very able to make a point that would work in all languages while still being something that would cause His audience to remember, word for word.  This verse is not a translation error, nor obscure.  Riches are quite clearly not the path to Heaven, nor given as blessings to only those that obey God.  And both hyperbole and language tricks like puns are excellent ways to make something memorable.  I really don't see why you have a problem with it. 
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Offline USA4ME

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #14 on: March 24, 2010, 07:22:01 AM »
Perhaps to you, but it still doesn't explain the eye of a "needle" that did not exist in those times......

doc

Ah, but they knew what it was, and that for a camel to get through wasn't easy.  While we might knock around what it was, the meaning is clear; that is, whatever the "eye of the needle" was, a camel had trouble making it through.  Once I understand that, the rest falls into place.

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Offline USA4ME

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #15 on: March 24, 2010, 07:25:02 AM »
True, but I'm gonna pick nits here......Job and Abraham were Jews......not Christians......the New Testament is where this is happening....

doc

No evidence Job was a Jew.  But regardless, it matters not.  The point being no matter when one lived upon the earth, those who have had riches tended to put their trust in riches and not God.

Besides, when Jesus said what we're discussing, they were still living under the Law of Moses (OT Law).

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Offline Chris_

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #16 on: March 24, 2010, 11:51:28 AM »
No evidence Job was a Jew.  But regardless, it matters not.  The point being no matter when one lived upon the earth, those who have had riches tended to put their trust in riches and not God.

Besides, when Jesus said what we're discussing, they were still living under the Law of Moses (OT Law).

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My Rabbi friend would likely debate that point with you, but you are correct.....it matters not.....

doc
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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #17 on: March 24, 2010, 12:23:31 PM »
I am not sure that is correct.

http://www.edburrell.com/eye_of_the_needle33.html

Unfortunately these sources are dealing entirely with the scriptural aspect of the statement.....not the actuality that has been proven, factually and scientifically, for those times.   Because this individual says it in "spiritual:" context simply flys in the face of the scientific evidence that needles with "eyes" did not exist at that time.......Therefore, for me at least, I have to look for another explanation for the "needle" analogy.....

Quote
In Mark 10:25 the word for "eye" is TRUMALIA, which is related to the word TRUPAYMA in Matthew above and means hole, eye of a needle. The word for "needle" is the same as in Matthew above - RhAPHIS, a sewing needle. Again, this text brings out that Jesus was talking about a literal hole in a literal sewing needle.

I fully realize that you, as well as many Christians take these things at "face value".....that is perfectly fine.....however, as you and I have discussed before, I seek knowledge about what actually happened, and can be proven to have happened during those times......just a avocation of mine.....it in no way means that I don't believe that these events occurred, and that Christ's teachings are not real....it just means that in my study of Scripture I seek provable facts.....sometimes I find them, sometimes I don't.  When I don't, it doesn't diminish my faith that the events did happen.....it just means that I have not, as yet, found the evidence......

When my wife and I lived in the Middle East, we spent some time in Israel, touring the Holy Sites, and literally "walking in the footsteps of Christ".....and it was a wonderful experience......I also spent some time with Rabbinical scholars (Yashiva University), and Kabbalistic scholars, in an attempt to learn about the Jews, and their history.....I keep in contact via email with several of these scholars yet today, and continue to find that by better understanding the history of the Jewish people, the land, culture, and language, as well as  Judism in general,  my understanding of my Christian faith is greatly enhanced......

doc
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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #18 on: March 24, 2010, 12:54:40 PM »
In the Babylonian Talmud there is a story of two rabbis arguing (like THAT could ever happen!). One dismissed the other's thesis as impossible by claiming it would be like trying to fit an elephant through the eye of a needle.

Jesus was a rabbi (In the original Greek he is called "rabboni" in a few NT passages). Even if he wasn't it is well within the realm of possibility hat he would be exposed to Talmudic teachings and would have heard this story. Other sayings of his, i.e. looking after a woman lustfully is still lust, ergo sin, can also be found in the Talmud.

Israel had no elephants (Babylon did). They had camels. Hence the reference modified for relevance to the audience.

Culturally, wealth was seen as a sign of divine blessing. If you were materially well-off, it was assumed, then God must smile on you. If God smiles on you enough to make you wealthy than anyone acting against you would act against God's intent.

Conversely, poverty would be seen as evidence of not being right with God. To afflict the poor would be of no consequence because God already afflicted them.

This declaration would do much to dispel those superstitions.

Too bad Pat Robertson never considered these facts when he attributed--however loosely--Haiti's poverty and travails from the earthquake to their history of pagan practices (last I heard the pagans nailed Jesus to a tree and they were quite rich and powerful for their day). Oh well, I simply assume he has come into his dotage.

Divine man or not Jesus seemed to go out of his way to dispel superstition, i.e. he never used the same method of healing twice. Sometimes he merely spoke, other times he laid hands, once he mixed spittle with dirt. I can only assume if he repeated a technique then the technique would have been the focus, not the healing or the person behind it. (Are you paying attention Mr. Hinn?) He seems to have taken great pains to dismiss the notion of God as a mere machine. Its almost as if he wanted God to be seen as...a person.

===========

Doc, are you sure about this declaration on needles not being around at the time of the NT's authoring?
According to the Bible, "know" means "yes."

Offline Chris_

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #19 on: March 24, 2010, 01:07:03 PM »

He could read, so there is no reason to think He couldn't write.

You are possibly correct that he could read, as the New Testament advises us that he studied in the Temple as a youth, under the scholars of the day.....however, the skill of "writing" was closely held by the Temple scribes, and was a mark of high status in Jewish society at that time.....there is no proof that he could write.....this is at least tacitly supported by the fact that none of his teachings were committed to text until at least half a century after his death.......regarding your statement that as God, he was all-knowing, perhaps you are correct, but he, alas did not demonstrate that characteristic to us.....so far as literacy is concerned.

Quote
being God, it's quite likely He knew ALL languages...and was very able to make a point that would work in all languages while still being something that would cause His audience to remember, word for word.

And you are certainly welcome to accept that as a matter of "faith" however, we are dealing with what can be reinforced by empirical evidence.

Quote
This verse is not a translation error, nor obscure.

Sorry, but your own rebuttal post stated that it is likely an error, and the scholar that you referenced indicated that his opinion was supposition.....in other words, his "best guess".

Quote
And both hyperbole and language tricks like puns are excellent ways to make something memorable.  I really don't see why you have a problem with it. 

True, my observation was that it was "unusual" considering His audience.....and I have a problem with it because it is an obvious translation/interpretation error.

As you and I have debated before.....You are perfectly free to accept the present Bible Scriptures as "word for word" absolute......I don't, and your continuing to assert that they are, without evidence to back that assertion up,  is not going to change my mind.  Nor is it going to make it empirically correct.......if it enhances your faith, I'm happy for you, but one of the problems that I have with some groups and aspects of modern Christian teaching is the "It's my way or the highway" attitude........

I post these subjects for members to read that are interested in the history and roots of Christianity, its facts, and inconsistancies.....it is a tool that I offer to those that are interested in challenging their preconceptions, and becoming more comfortable with Christ's teachings.......if these humble offerings don't do that for you, you don't have to participate.

I'm not trying to challenge anyone's faith, merely stimulate thought and offer knowledge.....

doc
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Offline Doc

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #20 on: March 24, 2010, 01:14:56 PM »
Quote
Jesus was a rabbi (In the original Greek he is called "rabboni" in a few NT passages). Even if he wasn't it is well within the realm of possibility hat he would be exposed to Talmudic teachings and would have heard this story. Other sayings of his, i.e. looking after a woman lustfully is still lust, ergo sin, can also be found in the Talmud.

Israel had no elephants (Babylon did). They had camels. Hence the reference modified for relevance to the audience.

Culturally, wealth was seen as a sign of divine blessing. If you were materially well-off, it was assumed, then God must smile on you. If God smiles on you enough to make you wealthy than anyone acting against you would act against God's intent.

Conversely, poverty would be seen as evidence of not being right with God. To afflict the poor would be of no consequence because God already afflicted them.

This declaration would do much to dispel those superstitions.


Excellent!  A very plausable explanation.....as I've grown to expect from you Sir....

doc
« Last Edit: March 24, 2010, 01:17:30 PM by TVDOC »

Offline Chris_

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #21 on: March 24, 2010, 01:31:30 PM »
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Doc, are you sure about this declaration on needles not being around at the time of the NT's authoring?

Another member asked the same question on the first page, and I hadn't gotten around to it as yet......

My source for the statement is the Smithsonian Institution, and a display in the Museum of Science and Industry, which traces the development of modern sewing tools.......according to this exhibit, the needle existed as far back as 5000 BC, however needles made with actual holes for thread were not around prior to the eleventh century.......a variety of other methods for guiding the thread were employed.....grooves, hooks, forks, but no "holes"...

Mrs Doc was a terrific seamstress, and had particular interest in that display when we visited, so I picked up a brochure on it in the gift shop......I don't know if it is on the net, but I'll look for a link........

doc
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Offline USA4ME

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #22 on: March 24, 2010, 02:44:27 PM »
My Rabbi friend would likely debate that point with you, but you are correct.....it matters not.....

doc

My study has led me to believe that Job lived prior to Abraham.

.....there is no proof that he could write..... but he, alas did not demonstrate that characteristic to us.....so far as literacy is concerned.

John 8:6 - "This they said, tempting him, that they might have to accuse him. But Jesus stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground, as though he heard them not."

Don't know what he wrote, but he wrote something.

Jesus was a rabbi

In those cases, it would be better intrepreted to be the word "teacher."  Priests (rabbis) could only be from the tribe of Levi.  Jesus was from the tribe of Judah.

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« Last Edit: March 24, 2010, 02:48:01 PM by USA4ME »
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Offline Wineslob

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #23 on: March 24, 2010, 03:33:48 PM »
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In those cases, it would be better intrepreted to be the word "teacher."  Priests (rabbis) could only be from the tribe of Levi.  Jesus was from the tribe of Judah.

I'm not sure that he was not. He was referred to as Rabbi several times I think? If true it would explain the supposition that he was married. The "proof" is the ceremony where his feet are anointed with oil, which is reserved for a man and wife (the wife uses her hair). This could be evidence of his own wealth (the oil was expensive) and position in society, which could lead to an explanation about his education.
« Last Edit: March 24, 2010, 03:36:44 PM by Wineslob »
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Offline USA4ME

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Re: Translation Errors in Scripture
« Reply #24 on: March 24, 2010, 03:43:23 PM »
I'm not sure that he was not. He was referred to as Rabbi several times I think? If true it would explain the supposition that he was married. The "proof" is the ceremony where his feet are anointed with oil, which is reserved for a man and wife (the wife uses her hair). This could be evidence of his own wealth (the oil was expensive) and position in society, which could lead to an explanation about his education.

I'm sure.  His geneology is through David, who was the tribe of Judah.  And Jewish priests in the OT were allowed to marry, however Jesus was not married.  His purpose here was of the spiritual, not the physical.  Jesus, in the passage, explains why he permitted Mary to anoint his feet with perfume.

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« Last Edit: March 24, 2010, 04:18:57 PM by USA4ME »
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